Author: Russell Reagan
Date: 20:11:34 03/27/04
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On March 27, 2004 at 19:42:23, Sune Fischer wrote: >Rémi's paper says, if I have understood it correctly, that >the likelyhood of A being better than B in a 10-0 match is the same as in a >1010-1000 match, if 2000 of the games were draws. > >Apparantly it is not the same if e.g. there were no draws at all. >In that case I believe the confidence is very much lower. > >-S. Since 10-0 excluding 2000 draws _is_ 1010-1000, I guess they could be the same :)
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