Author: Tom Kerrigan
Date: 15:19:57 05/25/00
Go up one level in this thread
On May 25, 2000 at 15:55:03, Ernst A. Heinz wrote: >>Sounds to me like you should test this for the same reason >>that you did the "X <=> X+1" test. > >Sounds to me that you still do not accept or understand the >qualitative difference between the cases ... > >=Ernst= I'm not even suggesting that the cases are remotely similar. I'm simply continuing the point of this thread, namely, you noticed that as depth increases, the number of draws increases and the number of wins decreases. Your conclusion is that this behavior is due to unequal depths. But wouldn't it be interesting if the behavior also occurred with equal depths? Here's the problem in my mind: You didn't believe that "X <=> X+1" would vary with depth, so you did an experiment and wrote a paper. You don't believe that "X <=> X" varies with depth, so you are dimissing the possibility with curt remarks and implications that I don't understand the problem. -Tom
This page took 0.01 seconds to execute
Last modified: Thu, 15 Apr 21 08:11:13 -0700
Current Computer Chess Club Forums at Talkchess. This site by Sean Mintz.