Author: pete
Date: 17:15:48 07/15/00
Go up one level in this thread
On July 15, 2000 at 20:08:29, Dann Corbit wrote: >On July 15, 2000 at 19:39:10, Ralf Elvsén wrote: >[snip] >>Why are there 2^101 outcomes in total? Just curious. >It's easy! Just count them. >Actually, I was wrong, it's only 2^100. That's because 100 1 bits is only 2^100 >-1, and the all zero bits makes a total of 2^100. > >Consider each toss as a binary digit. Each digit can be 0 = heads or 1 = tails. >The number you get will be anything between >0000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 >and >1111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111 > >As you can imagine, every combination of bits is possible, and each bit (with a >fair coin) is equally likely. I just stumbled over a past post of Uri Blass where he already explained the correct statistical experience for the question originally discussed : a.) coin fair ? b.) coin unfair ? If you get 100 1's the hypothesis of equal chances ( or worse ) is statistically just completely unlikely . I wonder why you object as you seem to know what you are talking about , I have no idea in fact ..
This page took 0 seconds to execute
Last modified: Thu, 15 Apr 21 08:11:13 -0700
Current Computer Chess Club Forums at Talkchess. This site by Sean Mintz.