Author: Robert Hyatt
Date: 18:58:33 11/02/00
Go up one level in this thread
On November 02, 2000 at 21:08:29, Ricardo Gibert wrote: >On November 02, 2000 at 20:27:34, Robert Hyatt wrote: > >>On November 02, 2000 at 20:08:57, Ricardo Gibert wrote: >> >>>[D]8/1R3p2/4pkp1/7p/7P/5PP1/r7/6K1 w - - 10 46 >>> >>>Why doesn't White play 46.f4 here? >> >> >>What is the issue? IE it appears to be drawn no matter what happens unless >>white drops material... > >The issue is White may have missed an easier way to draw the game. According to >GM Shipov, Kramnik later blundered with 51.Rg7 and Kasparov missed a win with >55...Kf6, which I haven't verified yet. See: > >http://www.kasparovchess.com/serve/templates/folders/show.asp?p_docID=12273&p_docLang=EN > >In any case, it seems White could have avoided the complications with the move I >suggest. It makes a big difference *how* you obtain a result, by good technique >or by unneccessary complications. Kramnik could have lost this game. > >Whether GM Shipov is correct is not so important. He *does* show the position is >not so easy, so the surest way to a draw *is* important. > >So is my suggestion any good or not. If not, why not? I think your move looks reasonable. I was trying to discover if this is a "white to move and win, white to move and draw, or white to move and lose" type position, which is why I asked "what is the issue?" Looks like it would be hard to lose this, assuming white doesn't make a move that loses to a short tactical stroke...
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