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Subject: Re: Is this really correct?

Author: Robert Hyatt

Date: 18:59:00 11/23/00

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On November 23, 2000 at 19:35:02, Ricardo Gibert wrote:

>On November 23, 2000 at 18:02:15, Robert Hyatt wrote:
>
>>On November 23, 2000 at 05:45:03, Andreas Stabel wrote:
>>
>>>On November 23, 2000 at 05:25:43, Shanti wrote:
>>>
>>>>Hi
>>>>
>>>>Just to complete the picture the b pawn will be catch by the black king (b6 kd7
>>>>b7 kc7) but then white uses the king side to force a queen. Black is one move
>>>>short since after b8=Q Kxb8 white will queen with a check.
>>>>
>>>>Shanti
>>>
>>>I don't understand this.
>>>After the moves 1. d5 exd5 2. exd5 cxd5 3. a5 bxa5 4. b5 axb5 5. cxb5 Ke7
>>>6. b6 Kd7 7. b7 Kc7 8. b8=Q+ Kxb8 you get the following position:
>>>[D]1k6/8/3p1ppp/p2p4/5PPP/8/8/5K2 w - - 0 9
>>>
>>>It is not possible to force a queen on the king side here or ... ???
>>>
>>>Regards
>>>Andreas Stabel
>>
>>
>>white plays g6.  If you play hxg6 then white plays f6.  If you play fxg6 then
>>white plays h6.  This is called "the sneaker" in chess ending books.  White
>>loses a pawn, but queens first.
>
>Of course, you mean 9.g5 rather then 9.g6, but unfortunately 9.g5 fxg5 10.h5
>gxh5 11.f5 Kc8 and the Black King is in the square of the pawn.
>
>White must hold off on Queening the b-pawn until he ready to queen a pawn on the
>K-side, otherwise the Black King is free to return to the K-side and foil
>White's plan. This is dealt with in more detail by someone else in another part
>of this thread.


Yes, I meant 5 rather than 6...  but in the above, I really wasn't trying to
solve the position.  I was responding to the question "how can white make a
passed pawn on the kingside?"  The "sneaker" isn't obvious unless you have ssen
it before...






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