Author: Vincent Lejeune
Date: 09:20:13 01/16/98
Go up one level in this thread
On January 15, 1998 at 18:50:33, Robert Hyatt wrote: >On January 15, 1998 at 18:08:49, Shane Booth wrote: > >>[FEN "8/7p/6pP/k4pP1/b1p1pP2/KpPpP3/1P1P4/7Q w - - 0 1"] >> >>On January 15, 1998 at 13:28:13, Robert Hyatt wrote: >>>I should add that while CB would obviously solve this and win, if it >>>were >>>playing, there is a way where it might not be able to win. Since it is >>>going to have to shuffle pieces for > 40 moves so that the 50-move rule >>>would kick it in the right direction, it is possible that by the time 50 >>>moves approaches, it can't find a way to play Qd1 without passing thru >>>another position for the 3rd time and repeating. I'd hope there are >>>enough >>>paths, but whether they are is only one issue. The other is whether it >>>would >>>leave itself a path where Qd1 works, because the king has to be over on >>>the >>>q-side or it doesn't work. >>> >>>I'd call this 50-50... >> >>Sorry, in this particular case the 50 move rule won't get it >>for you. As Vincent originally wrote, 1. Qd1! is zugzwang. >>If white fails to play Qd1 straight away and shuffles it around >>black simply oscillates the bishop between b5, c6, d7. As soon >>as White brings the queen to d1, Black plays Ba4 and prevents >>the sac. >> >>So it's not so obvious that CB will solve this without setting >>the 50-move counter close to 50. >> >>-- >>Shane Booth > > >Good point... I didn't spend a lot of time looking at this and >overlooked >that. This position seems to be unsolvable for now and the next 10 years... Is the final with the 2 passed pawns against the bishop (after Kxb3) really winning for white ? I have analyzed it with Rebel 9 : ply:29, +0.85 for black !?
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