Author: Leen Ammeraal
Date: 12:42:36 06/11/01
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On June 11, 2001 at 13:55:31, Gian-Carlo Pascutto wrote: >On June 11, 2001 at 13:36:21, Leen Ammeraal wrote: > >>Although Peter's program can in many ways be better >>than mine, I don't see how it can be more accurate, >>that is, as long as we regard, for example, >>10-5-0 as equivalent to 8-3-4. As you see, I simply >>divide the number of draws by 2 and add the result >>to either side. > >It is more accurate simply because it does not have >to do that simplification at all! > >10 - 5 - 0 -> 89,4% chance that A is better >8 - 3 - 4 -> 92,7% chance > I had not expected this, and I wonder if someone can explain this difference >>Would that be discutable, you think? > >Appearently it is, as it gives different results. > >>If you do, which of these two results would you >>prefer? Yes, my question was unclear. I meant: which would you prefer if you were player A (the first one). If Peter's program is right, you would prefer 8 - 3 - 4 to 10 - 5 - 0, while I would not have any preference. I will think about this, but any simple explanation is welcome. Leen
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