Author: Leen Ammeraal
Date: 13:22:02 06/11/01
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On June 11, 2001 at 13:55:31, Gian-Carlo Pascutto wrote: > >10 - 5 - 0 -> 89,4% chance that A is better >8 - 3 - 4 -> 92,7% chance > >>Would that be discutable, you think? > >Appearently it is, as it gives different results. > On second thoughts this seems nonsense to me. By the way, the probability my program computes is 15.1%, or in your terminology, 100 - 15.1 = 84.9%. Consider the simpler example of these two matches: 1 - 0 1 - 0 1/2 - 1/2 1 - 0 1/2 - 1/2 0 - 1 --------------------------- + 2 - 1 2 - 1 If I were player A, I would be glad with this score 2 - 1, regardless of which match applied. Do you still think diffently? Leen
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