Author: Peter Berger
Date: 10:47:44 09/24/01
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On September 24, 2001 at 13:32:52, Michel Langeveld wrote: >ECM 1621 > > r2q3r/2pkb1p1/p2p1n2/4p1p1/Pp2P1P1/1QP5/1P1P2PP/RNB2RK1 b - - 0 1 > >Is 1 .. Rxh2 really winning. > >I see a +2.38 after 1 .. Rxh2 2 Kxh2 ( 2 ... Qh8+ 3. Kg1 Nxg4 4 Rf7 Qh2 5 Kf1 >Rh8 6 cxb4 Qh1+ 7 Ke2 Qxg2+ 8 Kd3 Rh3+ 9 Kc2) > >but wat after: > >1 .. Rxh2 2 Rxf6! > >for example: > >2 ... gxf6 3 Kxh2 Qh8+ 4 Kg1 Qh4 (-0.91) > >Michel Why take back here ? How about 2...Qh8 ? A sample line: 3.Qe6+ Kc6 4.Qd5+ Kb6 5.Rf7 Qh4 6.Kf1 Rh1+ 7.Ke2 Qg3 8.Rf3 Qxg2+ 9.Rf2 Qxg4 10.Kd3 Rb8 -+ This is not supposed to be an analysis but 2...Qh8 looks at least very promising. Regards, pete
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