Author: Uri Blass
Date: 13:13:57 02/09/02
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On February 09, 2002 at 14:27:49, Dan Andersson wrote: >Sorry that doesn't cut it. You have to show that for an infinite number of games >played there will be a finite number of non won games. You can't look at one >game. Unless you can show that all games end. Then the finite number will be >zero. That the probability for a game ending goes to unity only shows that a >finite limit to the number of infinite games exist. > >MvH Dan Andersson I do not understand what you want. It is clear that you can know with probability 1 that the number of non won games when you play every finite number of games is 0. It means that you can also know with probability 1 that the number of non won games when you play the smallest infinite number of games is also 0. I will stop to post about it because I do not want to discuss about mathematics when a lot of posters probably do not understand it and I have better things to do. Uri
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