Author: Slater Wold
Date: 05:57:33 04/15/02
Go up one level in this thread
On April 15, 2002 at 07:27:20, Gian-Carlo Pascutto wrote: >On April 15, 2002 at 03:35:07, Slater Wold wrote: > >>[D]2r4k/1p3p1p/1pn2q2/1N1p1p2/8/PP2Q2P/5PP1/2R3K1 w - - 0 26 >> >>Why in this position is it not perfectly clear that taking the pawn (Qxb6) is >>the obvious move? Instead I've noticed several programs wanting Qf4, a4, and >>other moves that to me, just seem to waste time. >> >>I've spoken with one GM, (2550ish) and he agreed that Qxb6 is the only move that >>he would emphasize on. (It was a quick discussion, no detail.) >> >>This is move 26 of game one in the first match between Deep Blue and Kasparov. >>Deep Blue played Qxb6 and later won the game. >> >> >> >>**I've tested only a few "top commercial" programs. Most want Qf4, a4 and >>others at first, and around 1:30 want Qxb6. My question was, why isn't this >>obvious from the start?** > >A program with a speculative evaluation might think, gee, after the pawn >capture, black's attack might just work! So better not grab it. > >A program with a nonspeculative evaluation might think: Donuts! Yummy! >Eateateat. > >So, all those 'great attackers/new padadigm-whatever programs' will now fail to >simply win a pawn. > >This is the other side of all those speculative wild attackers. It works both >ways. > >-- >GCP Good explanation. You and Uri's explanation is completly understandable. Thanks guys. ;)
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