Author: Robert Hyatt
Date: 17:33:51 06/03/02
Go up one level in this thread
On June 03, 2002 at 15:02:39, Chris Carson wrote: >On June 03, 2002 at 14:51:23, Sune Fischer wrote: > >>On June 03, 2002 at 14:39:22, Sune Fischer wrote: >> >> >>>You have >>>Elo_1970(strength)=F(T_1970(strength)) and >>>Elo_2002(strength)=G(T_2002(strength)), now F(T(..)) and G(T(..)) are known >>>distributions, namely the ratinglists. >>>But we want to find how the strength evolved in time, how do we do that? >>> >>>If you treat F,G and T as unknowns (as I do), then you will get nowhere in you >>>analysis, you need to make assumtions or approksimations, that is unless I'm >>>overlooking something ;) >> >>Perhaps >>Elo_1970(strength)=F(S(1970),1970) and >>Elo_2002(strength)=G(S(2002),2002), would have been a better nameing >>convention;) >>So S is strength as function of time, and F and G are inflations, also functions >>of time. >>It seems hard to seperate S(time) from the other unknown functions, but perhaps >>statistics has methods? >> >>-S. > >I will give your comments some thought, my opinion is that you are making this >more complicated than it is, but I will consider it. > >My opinion is that FIDE ELO 1972 can be compared to FIDE ELO 2002. There may be >an inflation component (constant or percentage or time dependant variable or >...), but if an inflation component exists, then the comparison is still valid >with the time component factored in. I also think a good question is how >significant is the inflationary component? And now _back_ to the issue at hand: How is it possible to answer this? There is _no_ "absolute scale" that can be used to compare the players from two eras to see how strong they are in comparison to each other. And without such a measuring stick, there is nothing to normalize the FIDE ratings to. We are stuck with conjecture...
This page took 0 seconds to execute
Last modified: Thu, 15 Apr 21 08:11:13 -0700
Current Computer Chess Club Forums at Talkchess. This site by Sean Mintz.