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Subject: Re: LCT I #23, LCTII #FIN09

Author: James T. Walker

Date: 17:10:32 10/23/98

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On October 22, 1998 at 13:03:26, Bruce Moreland wrote:

>    a   b   c   d   e   f   g   h
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>8 |   |///|   |///|   |///|   |///| 8
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>7 |///|   |///|   |///| B |/p/|   | 7
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>6 |   |///|   |///| P |///|   |///| 6
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>5 |///|   |///|   |///|   |/p/| P | 5
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>4 |   |/b/|   |/k/|   |/P/|   |///| 4
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>3 |///|   |///|   |///| K |///|   | 3
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>2 |   |///|   |///|   |///|   |///| 2
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>1 |///|   |///|   |///|   |///|   | 1
>  +---+---+---+---+---+---+---+---+
>    a   b   c   d   e   f   g   h
>
>8/5Bp1/4P3/6pP/1b1k1P2/5K2/8/8 w - - 0 1
>
>The key is Kg4
>
>Programs want to play fxg5, because this wins a pawn, prepares to get a passer,
>etc.
>
>I haven't seen detailed analysis, but I assume that this draws, because black
>gets back to h8 somehow, and then he can sacrifice his bishop for the e6 pawn
>eventually, and white is left with the wrong rook pawn.
>
How does black get to h8 ?? After Kg4,Be7 then eventually to f5 with either
Kf5,pxf4 - Kxf4, whatever or  Kg4 pxp, Kxp whatever-- White's king gets to f5
and blacks king is cut off from getting back there.  That seem to be the purpose
of Kg4 to begin with.  To keep the black king off of f5.  After that it looks
like an easy win for white. Pxp to start with allows the black king access to
f5??
Jim Walker


>Does anybody figure this position out?  If so, how did you do it?  Does it
>require speculative knowledge that might lead to a sub-optimal result in other
>cases?
>
>bruce



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