Author: José de Jesús García Ruvalcaba
Date: 04:32:22 09/15/03
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On September 15, 2003 at 00:04:21, Uri Blass wrote: >Can programmers write a program that take a code with recursive functions and >translate it to a code without recursive functions that does the same thing? > It is posible, but I do not know if it is already done and I think it makes no sense. This is the kind of task a human can do quite well (it is not as difficult as Omid paints it). I learned that from a book several years ago, but right now I do not remember from which book or even exactly in which programming course (I searched in the homepage of my faculty, but the curriculum has changed since then). José. >Do not answer me that the compiler does it by translating it to assembler >because the translation should be done to a program in the same computer >language so a C source should be translated to another C source. > >Uri
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