Author: Bo Persson
Date: 14:15:33 01/04/04
Go up one level in this thread
On January 04, 2004 at 13:46:48, Ricardo Gibert wrote: > ------------------------------- > >In the examples given before, the number of decisive games depends on the number >of draws e.g. +17-3=0 and +14-0=6 are not of equal value since the number >decisive games are not equal. > >Let's take a more obvious example. Let's say we play a 1000 game match and I win >by +20-0=980. I only score 51%, but if we then play a short match, your chances >of winning such a match is virtually zero, since the longer match has clearly >demonstrated you couldn't win a game if your life depended on it. > >Now compare this with the alternative possibility. We play a 1000 game match and >I win +510-490=0. Again 51%. Now we play a short match afterward, the match >outcome will be very nearly a virtual coin flip. > >The first match is very convincing in demonstrating superiority. It is just as >effective as +20-0=0 is as per Remi. No, it's not! +20-0=980 shows that you on average can win one game out of 50. What does that tell us about your chances in a 20 game match? I would bet my money on +0-0=20 Bo Persson
This page took 0 seconds to execute
Last modified: Thu, 15 Apr 21 08:11:13 -0700
Current Computer Chess Club Forums at Talkchess. This site by Sean Mintz.