Author: Uri Blass
Date: 07:15:50 04/22/05
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On April 22, 2005 at 10:13:07, Uri Blass wrote: >On April 22, 2005 at 09:16:11, Robert Hyatt wrote: > >>On April 21, 2005 at 18:15:50, Rolf Tueschen wrote: > ><snipped> >>>Bob, you dont address the Benjamin issue. Why did Kasparov play that horrible >>>variant in the Spanish Opening. It's a losing choice. Why did he play that? >>>Because he wanted to prove how weak DB II really was? What's your opinion? >>> >> >> >> >>I believe that the answer is one of the two following ideas: >> >>1. He just screwed up by playing an opening he was unfamiliar with, he >>transposed two moves, and lost as a result. >> >>2. He had tried that opening as black against Fritz, and won easily, and >>thought the trap would work against DB. It didn't. >> >>Which is true doesn't matter. In neither case is DB at fault. You can blame >>idea 1 on Kasparov's preparation and decision to play an opening he didn't play >>much. you can blame idea 2 on his chessbase advisors. But he picked them. He >>listened to them. It blew up on him... > >I think that Rolf Tueschen is talking about game 2 and not game 6 >because he talk about the spanish opening that was played in game 2(see his >words snipped in the beginning of this post). > >Note that I disagree with Rolf that the line that kasparov played in game 2 is a >losing choice and I think it was good enough to get draw with black. > >Uri I mean good enough to get equality. Kasparov lost the game but not because of the opening. Uri
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