Author: A. Steen
Date: 09:25:37 12/30/05
Go up one level in this thread
On December 30, 2005 at 10:45:56, Drexel,Michael wrote: [d] 1k2r1nr/pp6/2p1p1Rb/4Pp1R/3P1P2/2P1N2Q/qP5P/5N1K w - - 0 31 > 31.Rgxh6 is a ?? move and 45.h3 too Excuse me for asking you, myself being a humble beginner, but why do you think that 45. h3 is a "??" move? Does h3 possibly change the outcome of the game? Does h3 significantly and undesirably shorten or prolong the game? If yes, how? If not, why "??" ? Additionally, for a move to qualify as "??" there must be some alternative that is not also "??". If your alternative is 45. f5, then I play 45. .. a2 and await to see how White is any less "busted" than after 45. h3. I would be grateful for your help, thank you.
This page took 0 seconds to execute
Last modified: Thu, 15 Apr 21 08:11:13 -0700
Current Computer Chess Club Forums at Talkchess. This site by Sean Mintz.