Author: Havergal Brian
Date: 17:38:39 11/30/99
Go up one level in this thread
On November 30, 1999 at 10:04:11, Andrew Williams wrote: >On November 30, 1999 at 09:57:24, Havergal Brian wrote: > >>On November 30, 1999 at 05:31:44, Andrew Williams wrote: >> >>>On November 30, 1999 at 02:32:25, Havergal Brian wrote: >>> >>>>This is the best line I can find. It leads to a black loss. >>>> >>>>Bxh6 gxh6 Qxh6 f5 Bxf5 Nd4 Bd3 Rg7 Rf4 Nf5 BxN BxB RxB (black is shot) Qe2 g3 >>>> and the pressure on the h and f file are too much. >>> >>>Do you mean after the second position Peter presented? After the first, >>>there's no need for Black to take the Bishop and he surely shouldn't. >>> >>>Andrew >> >> >>I do not understand your point here. Do you have another move in mind other >>than Nf5 after whites Rf4? After white moves BxN, what do you suggest? >>By the way, this whole series of moves starts with the "first" fen position. >>This is the position that occured in the game. > >Sorry, I've just re-read my post and though it's clear to me what I meant >I'm sure no-one else would understand it. I was thinking about 1... gxh6 in >your line. My program thinks this is a very bad idea. Isn't it better for >Black to not take the bishop? (My program suggests 1... f6) > >Andrew Ahh. If the bishop is not taken then black is a pawn down and chances are loses. The arguement (from what I gathered) is whether or not the bishop sac was sound or not. It appears to be. Others do not agree, but I would like to see some proof.
This page took 0 seconds to execute
Last modified: Thu, 15 Apr 21 08:11:13 -0700
Current Computer Chess Club Forums at Talkchess. This site by Sean Mintz.