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Subject: Re: Spike 1.0 Mainz is too strong for Zappa 1.1 so far 16 to 10

Author: Peter Berger

Date: 03:22:49 08/31/05

Go up one level in this thread


On August 31, 2005 at 04:52:11, Vasik Rajlich wrote:

>On August 30, 2005 at 12:27:52, Peter Berger wrote:
>
>>On August 30, 2005 at 12:21:20, Maurizio De Leo wrote:
>>
>>>
>>>>Under valid and controlled conditions it still seems logical to me to stop a
>>>>test after a 5-0 result and conclude that the winning program is probably the
>>>>stronger one.
>>>
>>>>>I don't put much credence in any result of less than 30 games.
>>>>>After 30 games, then you get a lot more plausibility.
>>>
>>>>You didn't give any reason for this, so I don't understand. A 6-0 says more
>>>>about engine strength than the above match result with over 100000 games.
>>>
>>>Dann is right, I think.
>>>The confidence interval calculation assumes that the score of a game is a
>>>statistic variable with a mean value between 1 and -1 (function of the Elo
>>>difference between the programs) and a standard deviation. Then if the
>>>experiments are independent, the sum of the points will approximate the product
>>>(mean*number of games) with a smaller standard deviation the more the games are.
>>>With enough games the "confidence" will get to 95% when the performance
>>>difference between the two programs is more than 3 standard deviations.
>>>However this assumes a normal distribution. The assumption can be made for any
>>>repeated statistical variable as long as the experiments are independent and
>>>"enough". This "enough" is indeed expressed in most statistics books as 30.
>>>
>>>Maurizio
>>
>>Please have a look at "WhoisBest.zip" at RĂ©mi Coulom's Home Page:
>>http://remi.coulom.free.fr/. It includes a little paper Whoisbest.pdf on
>>"Statistical Significance of a Match" , with a very straightforward mathematical
>>proof that for example the number of draws is irrelevant to conclude who is
>>better in a chessmatch .
>>
>>Peter
>
>It's not that simple, due to the nature of chess.
>
>In chess, a match result of 2-0 with 0 draws is less significant than a match
>result of 2-0 with 8 draws.
>
>WhoIsBest makes the assumption that draws are independent events - that is, that
>wins, losses and draws each come with some independent probability. In fact, in
>a +2 -0 =8 result, the chance is that the side with the +2 was "stronger" in the
>draws - ie. closer to winning. Chess has this phenomenon where the stronger side
>tries to break through the draw barrier, and sometimes cannot.
>
>Of course to model this mathematically would be a huge mess.
>
>Vas

No, that's a misunderstanding.

The only assumption that is made is that the results get drawn independently
from an unknown probability distribution.

So it doesn't matter *at all* how drawish chess itself is e.g. . And the result
will be the same whether the game is tic-tac-toe, checkers or chess.

Unless you want to argue that there should be a distinction between drawn games,
depending on how close one side got to winning. But that's a completely
different topic.

Peter



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