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Subject: Re: Does "huge advantage" equal an unfair advantage?

Author: Mark Young

Date: 21:46:09 05/16/00

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On May 16, 2000 at 19:27:04, Hans Gerber wrote:

>On May 16, 2000 at 19:03:11, Mark Young wrote:
>
>>Translated from Dutch by me.
>>
>>Protest of Sergei Tiviakov 15 mei 2000
>>
>>By: Sergei Tiviakov(source: Royal Dutch Chess Federation)
>>
>>Protest of Sergey Tiviakov against the handling of Frans Morsch in corporation
>>with Fritz SSS* (Frans Morsch)
>>
>>I did everything to win this game and also reached also a completely won
>>position (evaluation -+). The operator should not play further with a evaluation
>>of -2 (equal to two pawns) on time.
>>
>>*In this situation the computer is not equal to a human player and has a huge
>>advantage. The operator has to give up at respect for the human player.*
>>
>>_______________________________
>>
>>
>>I don't understand the logic of this protest. Can someone explain why just
>>because a chess program is stronger then humans in some aspects and situations
>>in chess, why this means the human should be awarded a win without winning the
>>game?
>
>
>Perhaps this helps. The logic is that the human would win against humans and the
>human can't lose such a position, then the machine should lose and not draw the
>game. We speak about classical tournament chess. Not rapid chess nor blitz.

So What... "human would win agianst humans", why does this mean the human should
be granted a win, if he can not beat the machine. The protest still makes no
sense to me, and your statement makes just about as much sense.



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