Author: Tom Kerrigan
Date: 10:53:40 05/26/00
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On May 26, 2000 at 11:35:00, Ernst A. Heinz wrote: >>I've heard many people complain that very strong human chess players draw each >>other a lot. So it seems that the percentage of draws increases with human >>strength. Is it that crazy to think that the percentage of draws also increases >>with computer strength (i.e., depth)? > >No, it is not crazy at all -- my experiment actually shows this >for "X+1 <=> X" slef-play of "Fritz 6" with 95% confidence. > >So, where is the beef? > >I was not interested in the question whether the number of draws >also increases for "X <=> X". Why should I test it then as you >repeatedly insisted? > >What influence does a higher number of draws for "9 <=> 9" than >for "8 <=> 8" have on the question about the difference in >playing strength between "8 <=> 7" and "9 <=> 8"? > >=Ernst= Please do not be so loose with the language. I have not "repeatedly insisted" anything. I haven't even insisted on something ONCE. I see your point about the purpose of the experiment. (Too bad you didn't bring this up 4 or 5 posts ago.) Here's my explanation for the misunderstanding. You've run an experiment that's a little weird, because one side searches a ply deeper than the other side. Then you draw conclusions from the experimental data. It's easy to get confused and think, "Ernst says that the percentage of draws increases _because_ one side is searching slightly deeper than the other side." But if that's not what you're trying to say, then I'm all good with it. -Tom
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